A person posts a Youtube video whereby the individual calls on viewers to overpower, fight and teach persons belonging to a particular religious group a “lesson.” Is this a form of protected speech? Why or why not?
[Hint: Belkacem v Belgium(2004) – Review this case to help support your answer]
YOU MUST completely answer the question and support your answer by citing previous cases or precedents established. This should be done using 2 paragraphs. The next 1-2 paragraphs should be solely your opinion on the scenario.
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